PREVENTING THE GOALKEEPER FROM RELEASING THE BALL REDUX

Question:
I want to bounce off your question from last month on preventing the keeper from releasing the ball. 

Team A shoots on Team B and team B’s keeper catches the ball and starts to run forward to punt the ball out. Team A’s player try’s to run into or stop in the keepers path for the punt. In otherwords is trying to hinder the kick by stepping infront of the keeper.  So as I read this should be a direct kick given to team B but should it be a yellow card also?

USSF answer (May 7, 2008):
Opposing players may not interfere with the goalkeeper’s right to release the ball back into general play. Law 12 tells us:
An indirect free kick is also awarded to the opposing team if a player, in the opinion of the referee:
– plays in a dangerous manner
– impedes the progress of an opponent
– prevents the goalkeeper from releasing the ball from his hands
– commits any other offense, not previously mentioned in Law 12, for which play is stopped to caution or dismiss a player
The indirect free kick is taken from where the offense occurred.* (see page 3)

The USSF “Advice to Referees on the Laws of the Game” tells us:
“12.17 PREVENTING THE GOALKEEPER FROM RELEASING THE BALL INTO PLAY
“An opponent may not interfere with or block the goalkeeper’s release of the ball into play. While players have a right to maintain a position achieved during the normal course of play, they may not try to block the goalkeeper’s movement while he or she is holding the ball or do anything which hinders, interferes with, or blocks the goalkeeper who is throwing or punting the ball back into play. An opponent does not violate the Law, however, if the player takes advantage of a ball released by the goalkeeper directly to him or her, in his or her direction, or deflecting off him or her nonviolently.”

And, if the referee attempts to stop the interference but is unsuccessful — and it makes a difference in the goalkeeper’s ability to release the ball — then a caution for unsporting behavior is in order.…

YOU MUST ISSUE THE CARD BEFORE THE RESTART!

Question:
At about 30 yds, fron t of the goal, defender made a foul which requires a caution (no discussion about it). The referee wants to issue a caution but the attacking team plays the DFK immediately in order to gain an advantage. The referee let play. Now on the top of this, the defender who made the foul already had a caution and therefore should have been send off but is not. Could the referee issue the caution at the next stoppage or is the opportuinity gone as the team played the DFK rapidly? I am aware of the USSF memo about stopping the play to issue a caution.

I remember seeing a game in which the referee had the caution in his hand but the team played fast and I beleive the referee gave the caution afterwards.

USSF answer (May 6, 2008):
It is not simply USSF who says that the disciplinary action must be taken before the restart: It is implicit in the Laws, which state it quite clearly. The referee may not delay the caution (or further punishment) until after a subsequent stoppage; it must be done at this stoppage or not at all.

If the team against whom the offense was committed takes the free kick quickly, but the referee KNOWS that this would not be fair to all participants within the Spirit of the Game, then the referee has two ways of dealing with the matter. The first would be to stop play immediately, noting that the restart was taken “incorrectly” and thus making it null and void. He or she may then issue the caution (or greater punishment) and then allow the restart to be retaken “correctly.” The second option depends on the judgment of the referee: If this particular restart is, in the opinion of the referee, an excellent opportunity for the team with the ball, then the incident may be set aside for the moment and later recorded in the match report with full details. This will allow the competition authority to make up its own mind on the matter.…

FAILURE TO RESPECT THE REQUIRED DISTANCE

Question:
After a direct free kick was awarded, the three members of the defending team lined up about 6 yards from where the ball was placed for the restart (obviously not yielding the required distance). The attacking team elected to take a quick kick rather than ask for the required ten yards. One of the defenders jumped up and to the side and was able to deflect the ball with his chest. In this situation, should the defender be cautioned for failure to yield ten yards and the free kick retaken, or does the attacking team’s decision to take the kick negate any requirement to yield the required distance? If this situation is a violation of the law, as a follow-up question, if the defenders did not move and were struck by the ball, would this also be a violation?

USSF answer (May 6, 2008):
1. Yes and yes. The defender within ten yards clearly interfered with the taking of the free kick. The attackers have the option to restart even though there are defenders within ten yards but that does not absolve these defenders from the duty to not interfere from within ten yards.  And clearly the ball was not misplayed directly to the opponent — he “jumped up and to the side” in order to deflect the ball.

2. No. If the ball had been kicked directly to a defender who happened to be within ten yards at the time there is no infringement, no card, and no stoppage.…

WASTING TIME

Question:
I have followed your “Ask the Ref” for about 5 years now and have learned and enjoyed reading your responses to the questions posed. Please consider this scenario from the past weekend.   

In the waning minutes of a competitive level GU11 match, with the White team leading 1-0, Blue is awarded a Goal Kick. The Blue defender clearly places the ball in the corner of the goal area and scans the field looking for an unmarked teammate. After 5-10 seconds the Blue defender picks up the ball and sprints across the goal area and places the ball in the other corner of the goal area to take the goal kick.  I as the referee stop play and warn the Blue defender that she is not permited to move the ball once it has been placed for the goal kick. ATR 16.5 states that “the defending team wastes time if the ball is clearly placed within the goal area in preparation for the restart and then is moved unnecessarily to another location”. I interpret ATR 16.5 to then inidcate that a team should be warned against this practice and that the referee may caution for a repeat offense.   

My question involves the concept of wasting time in this case. The Blue defender was not intending to waste time. In fact my stopping play to issue the warning wasted more time than the defender sprinting across the goal area.    Blue was trying to get the goal kick upfield quickly. Should the Spirit of the Game preclude warning the Blue player in this instance?  The ATR calls this an “offense”. Can or should this “offense” be ignored? Blue was moving the ball for tactical reasons, not to waste time. Thus would the offense be trivial, as this portion of the law is designed to preclude time wasting? Would the answer be any different if the Blue team was ahead instead of trailing by one goal?    

USSF answer (May 6, 2008):
In point of fact, the time-wasting tactic of shifting the ball from one side of the goal area to the other after it has been placed is misconduct in and of itself and should be punished with a caution for unsporting behavior. However, all such matters fall under the rubric of “the opinion of the referee.”

Tactical reasons are not a reason to allow a player to flout the Laws of the Game. Tactical actions are a major cause of cautions for unsporting behavior. So, despite the existence of The Seven Magic Words, “If, in the opinion of the referee, . . .,” which might suggest that the referee could do as you did and warn first before cautioning, the referee in this case should punish the infringement. That would be true, no matter what the score.

We have some concern with the reference in your scenario to the fact that you stopped play to issue the warning, and then your second thought that you might havecaused more of a delay by doing this than the player did by moving the ball. Our answer, yes, you did. But what does “stop play” mean in this context? Play is already stopped (with a goal kick being the prescribed restart)! We favor giving a warning if this is the first time this happened, but the warning can certainly be given “on the fly” — there is no reason to “stop play” (which we would take to mean that you stopped the players from setting up for the goal kick while you lectured them on their offense). A much easier way to handle it would be call out to the fullback to put the ball back where it was and then say, “Don’t move it once you have put it down.” There should be no trouble after that.…

UNSPORTING BEHAVIOR AND BEYOND

Question:
I have a question about a game yesterday that I was an AR of a U14 Boys Select game. This was the second game of a double header between the same 2 teams. I was the referee for the first game. During the second game, a player for “blue” tried a slide tackle from behind and completely missed the ball and the player. The “white” player kept the ball and was moving up the field. Seconds later, the same “blue” player tried another tackle from behind, and caught the cleat of the “white” player causing him to twist and then fall. He came nowhere near the ball. The ball was within playing distance of the “white” player. The “white” player remained on the ground and had to be helped off the field a minute or two later. In my opinion, this was definitely reckless and probably endangered the safety of his opponent. The referee gave him a yellow card. As the referee was writing in his book, I observed the cautioned “blue” player exchanging a “high five” with a teammate behind the referee’s back. I informed the referee and it was decided to require this “blue” player to have a substitute replace him. He returned to the game later on. My opinion was that the “blue” player targeted the “white” player purposely. Afterwards, I thought about what I would have done in this situation. In this case, there were no more issues in the game related to this player, but I think that he should have been shown the red card and sent off because the “high five” indicates to me that he was trying to take the player out on purpose.

So here is my question, if I did decide that he should be sent off, what would be the best procedure to follow? Note that play has not restarted. Here are two thoughts that I have:

A. Change the yellow card (for unsporting behavior) to a red card (for serious foul play).

B. Leave the caution and give him a second caution for unsporting behavior (celebrating after injuring an opponent) and then sending him off.

I was leaning toward option A, but maybe there is something else that I am not thinking of. In either case, I believe a caution would be warranted to the other “blue” player for unsporting behavior.

USSF answer (May 6, 2008):
As we are answering as if you were the referee, it makes our task easier.

If you believe that the tackle by the blue player placed the white player in danger, the answer is clear. According to Law 12, International Board Decision 4, “A tackle, which endangers the safety of an opponent, must be sanctioned as serious foul play.”

Any subsequent misconduct, such as the high-fiving with the player’s blue teammate, would be included in the match report.

We also believe that the second blue player should be cautioned for unsporting behavior and shown the yellow card.

The restart would be for the original foul (and misconduct) on the white player.…

DANGEROUS PLAY?

Question:
I have a reocurring issue that seems to occur at almost all youth levels of play, regardless of skill.  Player A & B go for a 50/50 ball, and through no fault of his/her own and no foul being committed, player A falls down over or near the ball. Player C (Player B’s team mate) comes in and strikes at the ball, endangering the safety of player A.

My call is player C is guilty of dangerous play and I award a IFK for player A’s team as my logic is player A did not intend to fall down or be in that position, it was Player C who made the decision to play dangerously.

Is this the correct call?  Please respond…my informal poll of peers seems to be split down the middle.

USSF answer (May 6, 2008):
Aside from recognizing that any issue involving a “dangerous play” foul requires us to take into account the age and skill level of the player, referees who observe what might seem to be dangerous play in the context of Law 12 must wait a moment to see what happens. 

If the player on the ground makes little or no attempt to get up or otherwise to stop “covering” the ball and, as a result, an opponent is prevented from challenging for the ball (in order not to cause danger to himself or the player on the ground), then definitely the player on the ground has committed an indirect free kick foul that we term “dangerous play.”

If the player is making every effort to extricate himself from the immediate area of the ball but a player on the opposing team challenges immediately and actively for the ball without making contact with the player on the ground, then it is the player on the opposing team who has committed the “dangerous play” infraction.

If, however, the opponent comes in without giving the player on the ground any opportunity to extricate himself, challenges for the ball, and in the process makes contact with the player on the ground, the opponent is not only guilty of a more serious foul (kicking — direct free kick or penalty kick) but could also be cautioned or even sent off depending on how violent the contact was.…

PREVENTING THE GOALKEEPER FROM RELEASING THE BALL

Question:
A situation came up tonight in an Adult league came that caused a great deal of discussion amongst our group of referees.

Team A shot on Team B’s goal. Team B’s goalie caught the ball in both hands and was walking forward, presumably to prepare to release it.

One of Team A’s forwards (who was BEHIND the goalie) ran around the goalie and headed the ball out of the goalie’s hands and onto the ground where he then kicked it into the goal.

Goal or no goal?

The center referee called the goal back on the grounds that heading the ball out of the keeper’s hands was not allowed.

Team A was livid and insisted that HEADING the ball out of the keeper’s hands was a valid technique, not like KICKING the ball out of a goalie’s hands, and that the goal should have stood. The center referee stood by his decision (as he should have).

After the game though, in discussion with his A/R’s, the center ref rethought his decision & now believes that he should have allowed the goal to stand, that there may be some validity to the argument that heading the ball is indeed different from kicking it.

I have read (and reread) the Laws of the Game and agree with the center ref’s initial decision. I can find nothing that would support the premise that heading the ball away from a goalie is allowed, much less from this position. (If he came from BEHIND the goalie, wouldn’t he have been offside?)

Is this correct? Or should he have allowed the goal to stand? If so, why?

USSF answer (April 16, 2008):
Law 12 states quite clearly:
An indirect free kick is also awarded to the opposing team if a player, in the opinion of the referee:
//deleted//
– prevents the goalkeeper from releasing the ball from his hands

The referee’s initial decision was correct. No one is allowed to interfere with the goalkeeper’s ability to put the ball back into play.

The USSF publication “Advice to Referees on the Laws of the Game” defines goalkeeper possession:

12.16 GOALKEEPER POSSESSION OF THE BALL
The goalkeeper is considered to be in possession of the ball while bouncing it on the ground or while throwing it into the air. Possession is given up if, while throwing the ball into the air, it is allowed to strike the ground.  While the ball is in the possession of the ‘keeper, it cannot be lawfully played by an opponent, and any attempt to do so may be punished by a direct free kick.

If it is any consolation to the referee in question, much of the world got this wrong until FIFA finally clarified the interpretation.…

ADVANTAGE OR PENALTY KICK

Question:
4.9.08
Yesterday’s MLS match up between NE & KC saw referee Terry Vaughn award KC a penalty kick in the 27th minute. KC’s player was clearly fouled inside the penalty area by a late challenge from NE’s defender. However, the ball made its way to a KC player right in front of the net who had a good scoring opportunity. You can see that Vaughn blew his whistle before the KC player was able to get his shot off on goal. Fortunately for Vaughn the ball went off the goal post and no goal was scored. Even if a goal had been scored, it would have not counted b/c Vaughn had stopped play before the shot.

Here’s my question. Did Vaughn do the right thing? Should Vaughn have called for advantage and allowed the KC player to take the shot on goal? Now, if the player is allowed to take the shot and the same result occurs, the ball goes off the post (no goal), can you then go back to the foul inside the box and award a penalty kick? Or is it simply one or the other?

I know that with the advantage you have a few seconds to see if the play will develop so as to become an advantage if the foul is not called. On the first goal of the game, Vaughn did just that. A foul was committed, he waited a few seconds to see if NE would gain an advantage from no foul being called, the play never developed, so he awarded the foul and NE scored on the free kick. But here, it appears the advantage did develop by the KC forward receiving the ball at his feet right in front of the goal. If advantage is given and the shot is taken, I would think, even if the shot is missed, the foul cannot then be called as if the advantage did not develop, but I’m really not sure. I realize Vaughn did not do this, that he called the foul before the shot was taken, but I’m just speculating what is the right thing to do in these types of situations.

USSF answer (April 16, 2008):
The game at the professional level is usually played and refereed at a much faster pace than our typical games at the school or neighborhood park. Critical refereeing decisions must be made in an instant, with little time to reflect on what might have been. That is one reason that we see the advantage signaled in professional games only after it has already been realized. Sometimes the referee gets it exactly right and sometime he or she does not. The important thing is that the referee at the top levels knows he or she has to make that decision, and does so, rather than dithering.

This position paper issued by USSF on April 11, 2008, may be of interest to you:

From the U.S. Soccer Communications Center:

To: National Referees
National Instructors
National Assessors
State Referee Administrators
State Directors of Instruction
State Directors of Assessment
State Directors of Coaching
From:  Alfred Kleinaitis
Manager of Referee Development and Education
Subject:  Advantage in the Penalty Area
Date:  April 11, 2008

Special circumstances govern the application of advantage for offenses committed by defenders inside their own penalty area. Although the basic concept of advantage remains the same, the specific decision by the referee must be governed by both the close proximity to the goal and the likelihood of scoring from the penalty kick restart if play is stopped instead of applying advantage.

The basic elements of the decision are straightforward:

Advantage is a team concept and thus the referee must be aware not only of the fouled player’s ability to continue his or her attack but also of the ability of any of the player’s teammates to continue the attack themselves.
Advantage has been applied when the decision is made, not when the advantage signal is given. The signal itself may often be delayed for 2-3 seconds while the referee evaluates the advantage situation to determine if it will continue.
Where it does not continue, the Laws of the Game provide for the referee to stop play for the original foul.
If the original foul involved violence, the referee is advised not to apply advantage unless there is an immediate chance of scoring a goal.
Inside the penalty area, the competitive tension is much greater and the referee is called upon to make quicker decisions. The time during which the referee looks for advantage to continue becomes defined by the probability of scoring a goal directly following the foul or from the subsequent play.

In the attached clip of an incident occurring in the 27th minute of a match on April 9 between New England and Kansas City. NE defender #31 (Nyassi) fouls KC attacker #11 (Morsink) near the top of the penalty area. Just as Morsink is fouled, however, he passes the ball to his teammate #19 (Sealy).

The referee properly recognized the advantage but then whistled for the foul against Morsink after he decided that a goal would not be scored by Sealy. In fact, Sealy made a shot on goal just as the whistle sounded and the ball failed to enter the net.

In the absence of a whistle stopping play and if the ball had entered the net, the advantage would clearly have continued and the goal would be counted.
If, in this case, the ball had entered the goal after the whistle had sounded, the goal could not be counted.
Ideally, the referee in this incident should have delayed stopping play for the original foul until he saw more concretely what Sealy would have been able to do with the ball.
In this incident, the penalty kick for the original foul was successful.

OWN GOAL ON HANDLING?

Question:
Here is my question, this occured during a U14 game. Team A keeper has possession of ball. As Team A keeper is punting the ball, Team A player (his own team) turns around and gets hit by the keepers kicked ball in the arm (visible direction change of ball) inside the penalty box. The ball rebounds off Team A players arm and directly into their own goal. Team B is awarded the goal.

Is this own goal accurate? The referee stated that he allowed the goal since he gave Team B the “advantage” for the handling of Team A in the penalty box. If the ball had not entered the goal, referee would of called handling on Team A player and awarded a penalty kick to Team B.

Did the referee properly apply advantage in this case? if advantage was properly applied by the ref, is properling the ball with the hand/arm a legal method of scoring in this case? Would this be any different if the keeper was actually performing a restart vice a punt, as in this case? As I understand that no team may score on themselves from a properly completed restart.

Thank you for your assistance in clarifying this.

USSF answer (April 15, 2008):
By your own description, the Team A player was “hit in the arm” by a kick from his goalkeeper. There was no attempt by the player to play the ball and likely could not have been, as he would have had very little time to react if he was just turning around. If the act was not deliberate, and your description tells us that it was not deliberate, then there is no infringement of the Law. If there was no infringement of the Law, then the advantage clause could not be applied. In addition, there would have been no reason for the referee to say anything but, “No foul! Play!”

The goal would be scored as an “own goal,” as the opposing team had no “hand” (pardon the pun) in it.…

“PASS BACK”?

Question:
I recently stopped play to issue a caution for unsporting behavior, the ball was in the possession of the goal keeper at the time of the foul. While I used to simply do a “drop ball” to the keeper to restart play, allowing him/her to pick it up (it only seemed fair…), I realize that the correct restart is an indirect free kick. I instructed the keeper that he needed to put the ball down and restart with an indirect free kick, a teammate of the keeper decided that since his keeper had the ball and was going to punt it until I had stopped play, he would have the keeper ‘flick’ the ball to him as a restart and he would simply head it back to the keeper. I explained that would be a violation of the ‘pass back’ rule – using trickery to circumvent the law – and he would not be permitted to do that. After reading the laws a little closer, I’m not sure I was correct…

Can a keeper ‘flick’ the ball to a teammate on a restart, have the teammate head the ball back to the keeper, then the keeper can catch it and punt it away??

USSF answer (April 14, 2008):
We will not go into your former way of restarting play, other than to say that it is certainly not correct now.

If play was stopped for a caution, then
(1) there was no foul;
(2) it doesn’t matter whether the ball was just laying there, being played by someone, or being held by the goalkeeper;
(3) giving the restart to the goalkeeper was (a) valid only if it was an opponent who committed the misconduct and (b) beyond the referee’s authority since the indirect free kick restart can be conducted by anyone on the GK’s team (assuming the offense was by an opponent).  The questioner’s scenario makes it appear that he believes the GK must perform the IFK (because he was holding the ball at the time?).

Explaining about pass backs and trickery etc. is also beyond the referee’s authority unless the players were very young (of course, the referee could respond to a brief, direct question about the Law if asked by a player).

Finally, if the restart is any sort of kick by the goalkeeper (DFK, IFK, GK, or CK — we exclude penalty kicks solely for practical reasons), “flicking” the ball to a teammate who then heads it back to the ‘keeper cannot be considered trickery since there would be no possibility of a so-called “pass back” offense occurring anyway.  The trickery rule has to be based on the restart of kicking the ball deliberately to the goalkeeper. If there is no possibility of the offense by the goalkeeper handling the ball after it has been kicked deliberately kicked by a teammate, then there is also no possibility of the misconduct.…